FSIS Inspection and Mission (IM) Training Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which of the following is true of the Beef Sanitary Dressing task?
• Which statement about the pre-shipment review is true?
• The poultry zero tolerance standard is verified how often on each production line?
• Which of the following are considered specified risk materials (SRM) in cattle of all ages?
• IPP will perform the Food Defense verification task quarterly.
• Can IPP complete tasks scheduled or started by another inspector?
• A quantifiable pathogen reduction level or growth limit requirement set by FSIS for certain products is called a:
• 417.3(a) states that when a food safety system failure occurs that is not addressed in the Hazard Analysis and HACCP plan (i.e., unforeseen hazard), the establishment must perform a HACCP reassessment.
• If IPP performing a Big 9 Formulation Verification task finds that one allergen is present in a product component but not listed on the final label, which steps should be taken?
• What is the time increment IPP will use for recording HATS category verification?
• What is sanitary dressing?
• Which of the following is NOT a post-lethality measure?
• Which regulation addresses HACCP-related IPP tasks?
• SRMs are tissues that must be controlled to reduce disease risk in beef.
• Which Lm Alternative provides for control of Lm entirely through sanitation and sampling of food contact surfaces?
• Each HACCP task has two verification components. Which option correctly names these two components?
• Which document is used to suspend an establishment in response to a trend in noncompliance?
• Which action is NOT taken by IPP when establishment management refuses access to records impacting their food safety system?
• A food allergy is
• Listeria monocytogenes is a pathogen of concern in food production environments because
• IPP must ensure the Establishment Profile is kept up to date and accurate because:
• Which action would an IPP most likely take to verify sanitary conditions during an SPS inspection?
• FSIS Directive 5000.6 provides guidance related to HAV. What aspect does it define?
• Why is the Sanitary Operations performance standard considered important?
• Which of the following might warrant a withholding action or suspension without prior notification?
• How often will IPP perform the HAV task?
• During Pre-Operational SSOP Review & Observation, if inspector finds residue on a food contact surface from previous day's production, what is required?
• When IPP reviews an establishment's flowchart, what requirement must be verified?
• Which statement best describes the focus of the Sanitation Performance Standards (SPS)?
• Which provides instruction to IPP on how to implement and enforce rules and inspection methodology?
• Which of the following is NOT a risk factor associated with Lm contamination due to disruptive construction?
• What does the acronym GAD refer to in the FSIS regulatory process?
• Which system should IPP use to view results when they need to verify a sample outcome?
• The ventilation standard requires establishments to:
• What is true of the SPS standard for equipment and utensils?
• Deficiencies in _______ and _______ are the two main causes of failure of an establishment's food safety system.
• Beef Jerky, which is a HTSS product relies primarily on _________ to achieve food safety:
• A process step used to destroy pathogenic microorganisms in a product to make it safe for human consumption is called:
• Which program is used to collect intact samples from Ready-To-Eat products?
• Slaughter establishments using the sponging method for generic E. coli sampling must use which of the following to analyze results?
• Which statement is true about food intolerance?
• Is it required that all establishments have a functional food defense plan?
• The statement “The purpose of the FSIS Salmonella and Campylobacter verification sampling program is to determine the disposition of lots of product which test positive” is.
• Fully cooked ready-to-eat (RTE) products that are handled by personnel or otherwise directly touch surfaces in the production environment after the lethality step are considered:
• If IPP perform multiple export certifications on a shift, how frequently will they record the task in PHIS?
• How often should the Establishment Profile be updated by IPP in the PHIS system?
• Which actions should be taken if product contamination results from an insanitary condition?
• If pest control substances are stored in the same room as edible products, without labeling, the situation is best described as:
• What is the primary purpose of regulatory control actions?
• Which action is NOT an appropriate part of Pre-Operational SSOP Review & Observation?
• Which accounts for the largest proportion of all foodborne illnesses associated with meat and poultry products?
• In analyzing the results of Salmonella and Campylobacter testing, IPP evaluate based on which criterion?
• What process should an establishment follow when appealing a noncompliance record (NR) issued by a CSI?
• HT-SS stands for Heat Treated-Shelf Stable.
• A deviation from a critical limit occurred and the establishment did not identify and eliminate the cause of the deviation. What type of noncompliance is this?
• Which organism was selected as the target organism because it is a commonly reported cause of foodborne illness and is present in all major species?
• Are establishments required to perform raw beef sampling?
• When performing the Generic E. coli verification task, IPP are to verify all the following regulatory requirements except?
• A functional food defense plan will help to prevent __________.
• What is the routine evaluation of SSOPs called?
• How often is the Review Establishment Data task performed?
• Which method does an IPP use to verify compliance with SPS regulations?
• Which RTE category describes Heat Treated but Not Fully Cooked-Not Shelf Stable?
• Which of the following are basic components of the HACCP safety system?
• Which of the following is not a stated purpose of generic E. coli sampling?
• When performing HATS Category III (Water and Feed Availability) IPP observe that a holding pen has two water troughs but only one is filled, and all animals in the pen have access to the trough. Would they document noncompliance?
• How many sites will the establishment sample on a carcass, and when?
• Mechanically tenderized beef, and intact raw beef products, such as trim, intended to be processed into non-intact products contaminated with E. coli O157:H7 or six non-O157 STECs are considered:
• Except in very small establishments, which HATS category is verified every time the Livestock Humane Handling Verification task is performed during normal slaughter operations?
• Which action is part of the Big 9 Formulation Verification process when an allergen is present in the product formulation?
• Who is authorized to issue a Notice of Suspension?
• Which statement about the Employee Hygiene sanitation performance standard is true?
• When an unforeseen hazard occurs, the establishment will need to follow the corrective actions prescribed in:
• During cooling (stabilization) for beef products, no more than which organism's 1.0-log growth is allowed?
• A window without a screen has a broken windowpane. This condition is considered:
• Which term refers to the FSIS-defined target established by an establishment to control a hazard and ensure safety?
• FSIS maintains control of the export stamps in establishments. In establishments that use printed stamps on labels what must IPP do with any extra labels.
• Are HACCP inspection tasks ever performed as routine or directed tasks?
• Which statement best describes the role of IPP with respect to equipment and utensils?
• The 9 CFR Part 417 regulation is most closely associated with which program area?
• Which regulation prescribes corrective actions for unforeseen hazards?
• In the context of laboratory results, what status is assigned when a result is pending confirmatory analysis?
• The zero tolerance standard for livestock includes:
• Which option correctly reflects SSOP monitoring frequencies?
• Which statement about NR handling is true?
• The process of preventing or limiting the growth of spore-forming bacteria such as Clostridium perfringens and Clostridium botulinum is primarily achieved through which concept?
• Which category is eligible for FSIS Salmonella and Campylobacter sampling?
• Observing several cockroaches on the floor in the establishment's break area indicates which status?
• A substance added to RTE product intended to suppress or limit the growth of Lm throughout the shelf life of the product is called
• The 52-week moving window used to evaluate Salmonella performance represents data from how many weeks?
• What is a rarely used sampling method for livestock due to its destructive nature?
• Which of the following might warrant a withholding action or suspension with prior notification?
• Establishments that exceed the performance standard for Salmonella within a 52-week window will be classified by FSIS into which category?
• NR stands for Noncompliance Report.
• What size should the intact sample collected by IPP for the RTEPROD_RAND be?
• Which of the following is true of establishment responsibilities for controlling ingredients of public health concern?
• FC-NSS stands for Fully Cooked-Not Shelf Stable.
• Cooked poultry products must achieve a 7.0-log reduction in which organism during cooking?
• Which statement is true about establishment validation documents?
• IPP issues NRs for Good Commercial Practices when they observe:
• Which organisms are addressed by drying in products such as beef jerky?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of sanitary dressing?
• What does HAV stand for in HACCP verification tasks?
• Which step involves entering HACCP inspection task results, documenting, and associating noncompliance records (when applicable)?
• The livestock zero tolerance standard for carcasses is verified
• Statement: Listeria monocytogenes can grow in cool, damp environments.
• From a public health standpoint, Taenia saginata and Taenia solium are important examples of _______.
• Establishments must keep Sanitation SOP records for how long?
• Which step in the four-step HACCP regulatory process involves using the GAD process to determine regulatory compliance or noncompliance?
• When IPP have finished documenting an NR and are ready to deliver it to establishment management, they must first do what?
• Which statement is true about NR preparation?
• How much prior notice should IPP give an establishment prior to collecting a sample?
• Which term describes a laboratory finding that is not final and requires confirmatory analysis?
• HT-SS stands for Heat Treated-Shelf Stable.
• Which form of documentation is required by the SPS regulations?
• Which of the following is NOT a type of regulatory control action?
• Which publication would you consult to find the official enforcement procedures?
• FSIS notice NOT true?
• HATS Category V covers which area?
• Which step of the four-step HACCP regulatory process involves following the Rules of Practice and affording establishments due process?
• Who issues a Notice of Intended Enforcement (NOIE) in response to a concerning trend in noncompliance reported by IPP?
• Which group of pathogenic bacteria are considered a particular public health risk because they produce dangerous toxins and form heat-resistant spores at ambient temperatures?
• Which document communicates intended enforcement to an establishment before action is taken?
• Which option is NOT a valid PHIS entry method for poultry dispositions?
• At which of the following steps in the slaughter process are carcasses potentially at highest risk for contamination?
• An establishment not properly collecting and analyzing samples for E. coli biotype I would be considered a deficiency in which area?
• How are poultry dispositions entered into PHIS?
• Which tag is used to disallow shipment of a contaminated product?
• Which element in PHIS provides visibility into task assignments and completion status?
• Which FSIS standard covers the requirement that restrooms be separated from processing areas?
• What regulations in Title 9 CFR cover HACCP?
• IPP should document an SPS noncompliance when they observe that restrooms are not separate from the processing area. This statement is:
• What action should IPP take when concerns arise with establishment management regarding generic E. coli sampling?
• Which statement is true about STEC testing in FSIS programs?
• Fermentation in fermented, dried sausage products is essential to prevent the outgrowth of which organism?
• Prerequisite programs in HACCP typically cover which area?
• Which statement about presumptive positive results is true?
• Any general practices and conditions needed prior to and during the implementation of HACCP and which are essential for food safety are referred to as:
• What must establishments determine when assessing potential hazards for each step in the flowchart?
• Which resource on the PHIS platform shows urgent information about a sample's status?
• List the 4 main parts of the FSIS regulatory process:
• Freezing, fermentation, and drying are examples of ____________ applied to RTE products to suppress or limit the growth of Lm throughout the shelf life of the product.
• Which term describes a lab result that, while appearing positive, requires confirmatory testing before final reporting?
• Which statement best describes performance criteria?
• Which action should IPP take when STEC results require MOI documentation and corrective actions?
• What does the Task Calendar show when viewed by IPP?
• All inspected establishments are required to have a written humane handling program.
• Listeria monocytogenes can:
• Bacterial growth occurs most rapidly during the ____________.
• Which statement best defines Supporting Documentation in HACCP?
• Which of the following is not true of appeals?
• The organism testing in poultry establishments is used as a measure of process control rather than adulterants in raw poultry.
• Which two processing steps are usually identified as CCPs in production of FC-NSS products?
• A process or treatment applied to the product or packaging after the initial lethality step intended to reduce or eliminate the risk of Lm contamination in the post-lethality environment is called
• Which of the following describes a correct response when IPP records access is denied by establishment management in a regulatory context?
• Which statement correctly describes how RLTO and NRLTO hazards are addressed?
• If barrels of inedible byproducts are stored in the same cooler as edible carcasses and are unlabeled, this is:
• Why was Salmonella selected as the target organism?
• What must establishments consider for every hazard identified as NRLTO?
• FSIS performs Regulatory Control Actions (RCA) and other enforcement actions. What must be followed when any action is taken?
• If IPP determine that there are issues with the export upon reinspection what should they do?
• Which statement about equipment and utensils is false?
• Which term describes a FSIS-defined limit designed to ensure safety for specific products, often set by the agency rather than by the establishment?
• What is the primary purpose of Salmonella and Campylobacter testing in poultry establishments?
• HATS Category II addresses which aspect of humane handling?
• Which method is NOT used to enter poultry dispositions into PHIS?
• In FSIS sampling, which criterion best describes how raw beef product types are selected for testing?
• Name the two approved methods of humane slaughter in the Humane Methods of Slaughter Act (HMSA).
• When raw beef product tests positive for E. coli O157:H7 or other STECs, establishments may choose to
• Where must Sanitation SOP records be maintained?
• Which consequence is likely if the Establishment Profile is not updated monthly in PHIS?
• If an establishment employee is not monitoring at the frequency specified in the HACCP plan, what type of noncompliance is this?
• The establishment must address the relevant hazards of concern when producing RTE products in the HACCP or SSOP plan. Must they also perform sampling in the RTE processing environment for Lm Alternative 1?
• When performing the Big 9 Formulation Verification, if an ingredient used in a product formulation contains an allergen, how can the consumer be informed?
• Which of the following describes a food allergy?
• Establishments are required by regulations to reassess their HACCP plans. How often must this occur?
• Which statement is true of any establishment that exposes ready-to-eat (RTE) product to the environment post-lethality?
• Which statement about the RTEPROD_RISK sampling program is true?
• Ritual slaughter establishments are exempt from the general requirement to stun animals prior to slaughter.
• When IPP observe egregious inhumane handling of livestock, what should they do first?
• Which RTE category relies on a full lethality heat processing step (cooking) to achieve food safety?
• FSIS determines establishment Salmonella performance using which method?
• During cooling (stabilization) for beef products, zero growth is required for which organism?
• Which of the following statements best describes how poultry dispositions are entered into PHIS?
• Which entity is responsible for verification testing for Salmonella and Campylobacter in FSIS programs?
• What should IPP do if there is a change or error in production?
• IPP associate NRs for zero tolerance failures are triggered under which condition?
• When using the excision method, which should cattle slaughter establishments use to analyze generic E. coli sampling results?
• What must establishments consider for every RLTO hazard?
• Listeria monocytogenes contamination has been linked to disruptive construction in the production environment. Which option best reflects the potential risk factors?
• Which statement about food intolerance is true?
• Which task type describes verifying continued compliance after noncompliance has been documented?
• If IPP is wondering about results of a sample, which resource can they check on the PHIS homepage for updates?
• The HACCP Verification task focuses the IPP's attention on the implementation of the establishment's HACCP plans, prerequisite programs, and other supporting programs. This focus is described as focusing on the ______.
• Which statement best describes the focus of the SPS?
• Which statement describes the role of the Establishment Profile in determining inspection planning?
• A District Manager issues a suspension to an establishment, but subsequently lifts the suspension temporarily to allow the establishment an opportunity to implement proposed corrective actions. This is referred to as:
• When FSIS receives a sample result positive for STEC in raw beef product, and the establishment tested the same lot of product and also got a positive result for STEC, IPP should:
• Which statement correctly expands FC-NSS abbreviations for Ready-To-Eat products?
• Which entity is responsible for charting results of generic E. coli sampling?
• FSIS maintains control of the export stamps in establishments. Which entity maintains that control?
• An establishment employee did not perform thermometer calibration as written in the HACCP plan. What type of noncompliance is this?
• When FSIS receives a sample result positive for STEC in raw beef product, and the establishment either diverted the product for cooking or tested the same lot and got a negative result, IPP are to
• Which statement best describes the Systems Thinking concept in HACCP?
• Which of the following is a requirement of the SRM regulations (9 CFR 310.22)?
• Sample collection and analysis instructions are found in which FSIS Directives series?
• Which statement about ritual slaughter establishments is true?
• Who is responsible for verifying HACCP corrective actions and possible reassessment after a Salmonella failure?
• In PHIS, dispositions for poultry are entered at what level?
• Which RTE category relies on both heat and a curing, drying, or fermenting step to achieve food safety?
• Which document does IPP use to document weekly meetings and other important information shared with the establishment?
• During the HAV task, IPP are to review and verify which of the following?
• If an allergen is found in a product formulation but not on the final label, which of the following actions is appropriate?
• Which option correctly describes the required granularity for poultry dispositions in PHIS?
• Who is responsible for selecting and analyzing samples for generic E. coli?
• Barrels of inedible slaughter byproducts are labeled and stored in a separate cooler from trimmed and washed carcasses. This is considered:
• Which statement correctly describes SRMs in regulatory context?
• What frequency does a very small establishment performing generic E. coli sampling use?
• The first action when IPP observe an establishment employee harming livestock is to apply a 'U.S. Rejected' tag to the alleyway.
• A withdrawal is roughly defined as:
• PHIS disposition data for poultry is typically recorded at which level?
• Which statement about presumptive positive results is true?
• Which description best defines 'egregious inhumane handling'?
• During the Review Establishment Data task, which records are subject to IPP review?
• Can IPP schedule tasks for another inspector?
• HACCP monitoring is a planned sequence of observations or measurements to assess which of the following?
• Noncompliance is defined as _______________:
• How do IPP determine which HACCP processing category to perform the HAV on each quarter?
• What abbreviation stands for the document used to record interviews and information shared with the establishment?
• Post-lethality exposure refers to products that have already undergone lethality steps and are then exposed to the production environment.
• When ensuring that a consumer is informed of an allergen in a product, which approach is appropriate?
• What status must a noncompliance be given in PHIS before printing and delivering to the establishment?
• Which HACCP task directs the IPP to review the establishment's hazard analysis for one HACCP plan, the HACCP plan, and prerequisite programs to support the decision that a food safety hazard is present?
• Beef Sanitary Dressing task timing is specified as which of the following?
• Microbial organisms that have the potential to cause foodborne illnesses are called _________.
• Low lighting in the gizzard-peeling area that prevents an establishment worker from inspecting the product would constitute noncompliance with which FSIS standard?
• Which of the following does the plumbing sanitation performance standard require?
• FSIS Directive _____ covers the steps IPP will take when performing the verification activities associated with NFSCP tasks.
• Why is timely scheduling of assigned samples important?
• What does RTE stand for in the context of these procedures?
• Regarding the SPS Verification task, which statement is correct?
• Which color indicates 'completed' in IPP inspection task colors?
• Who is required to conduct Salmonella and Campylobacter verification testing?
• The use of two or more critical operational parameters to achieve lethality and control a hazard is referred to as:
• Which statement best describes the relationship between the Establishment Profile and task assignments?
• Which acronym lists the factors that affect microbial growth?
• What must be documented in the HACCP/SSOP plan for RTE products?
• Which term describes a laboratory finding that initially appears positive but is not the final result until confirmatory tests are completed?
• Salmonella and Campylobacter samples are taken for not-ready-to-eat (NRTE) comminuted product when which condition applies?
• What is the primary objective of a functional food defense plan?
• Which term describes an establishment's right to a fair proceeding before the government interferes with its business?
• An establishment employee did not perform the pre-shipment review. What type of noncompliance is this?
• A quantifiable pathogen reduction level or growth limit requirement set by an establishment to produce safe products is called a:
• How often should IPP perform the Livestock Humane Handling Verification task?
• Is it correct to cite 9 CFR 416.1 when documenting noncompliance with SPS regulations?
• If an IPP needs to verify the time and temperature requirements for an RTE product to ensure lethality is met, which resource should be consulted?
• Which statement about the handwashing facilities is true according to 416.2(h)(1)?
• Flaking or peeling paint on walls or ceilings of edible product areas indicates which status?
• Which RTE category is Not Heat Treated-Shelf Stable?
• SPS are not prescriptive but they set the standard to be achieved. Which option describes this concept most accurately?
• Which step involves performing HACCP inspection tasks and verifying specific HACCP regulatory requirements?
• Sanitation SOP records must be maintained on site for how long?
• A robust systematic approach to humane handling consists of a written document and associated records.
• Describe how to determine which raw beef product to sample.
• Is it true that IPP can schedule collector-generated samples by clicking on 'Directed' next to the project name in the Establishment Task List?
• When IPP documents noncompliance, what type of task may they perform to verify that the establishment has brought itself back into compliance?
• Regulatory control actions are actions IPP take to control process or products such as stopping the line or rejecting equipment. True or False?
• A meat or poultry product that is in a form that is edible without additional preparation to achieve food safety is called:
• Which statement about Alternative 3 is true?
• Which hazards categories are considered for each processing step?
• When is the livestock zero tolerance standard for head, cheek, and weasand meat and edible offal verified?
• Which statement about IPP scheduling tasks for another inspector is true?
• The introduction of humidity is essential during heating/cooking because which of the following is true?
• When performing the Pre-Operational SSOP Review and Observation task, IPP should do what components?
• Explain the Agency's actions when an establishment has failed a Salmonella performance standard in carcasses.
• What is the intended effect of a post-lethality treatment on a ready-to-eat product?
• For excision sampling, which criterion is used to evaluate results?
• A product that is free of microorganisms capable of growing in the product under non-refrigerated conditions at which the product is intended to be held during distribution and storage is referred to as:
• In FSIS terminology, what is a lab result called when it appears positive but requires further analysis before a final result is reported?
• Which is true of the pre-shipment review?
• Which statement about how and when Salmonella and Campylobacter samples are taken is correct?
• FSIS has no specific labeling requirements for food ingredients of public health concern.
• Where do IPP find and review the importing country requirements for an export shipment?
• By when must daily SSOP records be made available to FSIS for verification?
• What is a key reason for Lm monitoring in post-lethality exposed environments?
• Which category is NOT eligible for FSIS Salmonella and Campylobacter sampling?
• In the context of generic E. coli sampling, what does 'm/M' refer to?
• Salmonella samples are what type of sample?
• Where will IPP find all relevant information about an establishment?
• Pest control substances are stored in a separate storage room, with containers labeled and used by employees in accordance with instructions on file in the plant office. This practice is:
• Is it true that IPP are to automatically issue an NR when generic E. coli testing results indicate a lack of process control?
• One of four handwash sinks in the production room does not have soap or paper hand towels. This situation is:
• Which statement accurately describes the Grant of Inspection in FSIS operations?
• Which of the following best describes what the poultry zero tolerance standard includes?
• HATS Category VIII pertains to which aspect?
• When IPP verify that the establishment has brought itself back into compliance, they are to ________ :
• What does the acronym FATTOM stand for in HACCP?
• When an establishment is connected to a well system or other private water supply, how often must IPP verify documentation certifying potability?
• Sodium diacetate is an example of an antimicrobial ______ used in post-lethality exposed RTE products, whereas drying is an example of an antimicrobial ______ used in post-lethality exposed RTE products.
• FSIS's authority to regulate meat and poultry products comes from which source?
• If pest control substances are stored in a separate storage room but the containers are not labeled, the situation is best described as:
• Which term describes using two or more barriers (hurdles) to control hazards in foods?
• After the pre-shipment review is signed, how is the product status described?
• Which of the following is an example of misbranding?
• Non-food safety consumer protection (NFSCP) tasks are designed to prevent economically adulterated products from entering commerce.
• Which color corresponds to 'not open (scheduled)' in inspection task colors?
• Which statement best reflects how poultry dispositions are recorded in PHIS?
• FSIS's legal authority to regulate meat and poultry products is derived from:
• What does NRLTO stand for?
• When the District Manager issues a _____ in response to a concerning trend in noncompliance reported by IPP, the establishment has 3 days to respond in writing with proposed corrective actions:
• In post-lethality exposed RTE products, drying is best described as which type of antimicrobial control?
• Which term describes controls used when CCPs are not effective?
• Not Heat Treated-Shelf Stable products rely primarily on which method to achieve food safety?
• Which statement about IICs withholding actions is accurate?
• During cooking, beef products must achieve which of the following log reductions in Salmonella?